2. The Wife of Bath's Tale is considered by some critics to indicate that Chaucer may have been a feminist. Why might they believe this? Do you agree? Remember to cite evidence from the text or some other source.
3.Hahn's essay (see critical reader)onThe Wedding of Sir Gawain and Dame Ragnelle identifies the motif of the loathly lady, but arguesit has a different purpose than asserting the feminine. What does he think the function of the story is?
4. In the context of Elizabethan and Jacobean sonnets, how can we define "conceits"?
5. Discuss what you think is the most striking or outrageous example.
6. What does Revard (1997) suggest about the relationship between language, sex, power and transgression in the English Renaissance?
2. The Wife of Bath's Tale is considered by some critics to indicate that Chaucer may have been a feminist. Why might they believe this? Do you agree? Remember to cite evidence from the text or some other source.
ReplyDeleteIt is discussed in the Carter (2003) text that in such times as the ones that the WYves of Bath Tale was written it was not customary or accepted for an author to write from the perspective of a female, which this text does. Also the entire theme of the tale revolves around men discovering what it is that females desire most, although this may be directly related to the Celtic tradition of lineage being passed through the females, it would appear that, as far as female empowerment is concerned, Gawain has learnt his lesson.
I find myself disagreeing with the idea of CHacer being feminist however. This is because although his narration from a woman's perspective and a noble knight succumbing to female desire, it is apparent however that Chaucers ideals about females are entirely comprised of whether or not a female is attractive or not. That is she is ugly she can't possibly be disloyal and that should she be fair and beautiful that she will be promiscuous.
Carter, S. (2003) Coupling The Beastly Bride and the Hunter Hunted: What lies behind Chaucer's Wife of Bath's Tale. The Chaucer Review. Pennsylvania State University, PA.
I think Chaucers actually could have been a feminist. Not only he chose to wrote the poem by female voice (he used 'we' to express the feeling of the asked women) but also put his favor on female. As in "The Wife of Bath's Tale", Chaucers spent a lot of lines to say that women want to acknowledged as wise clean of sin, determined and even able to keep her secret. A whole big stanza was dedicated to protect the women from being called 'secrets spreader'. It is true that even in today stereotype nobody says women won't accidentally slip out anything gossiping. However, Chaucers protected them and give example on Midas' wife (i suppose it is King Midas) tried her best not to expose her husband foul. In addition, through the wife voice Chaucers emphasised the fact that no women can keep secrets, especially when their 'sore button' would be touched.
DeleteNevertheless, at the end of the poem, Chaucers, through female voice, praying to Jesus Christ that he would bless the males to be young, outlive whom they wed but also shorten their lives, even as far as sending harmfulness to those who not governed by their wives.
3. Hahn's essay (see critical reader)on The Wedding of Sir Gawain and Dame Ragnelle identifies the motif of the loathly lady, but argues it has a different purpose than asserting the feminine. What does he think the function of the story is?
ReplyDeleteThe function of the story is to assert aristocracy and hierarchy. As Hahn's essay points out, Ragnelle is only considered a lady of the court when she transforms at the end of the story into a beautiful woman complete with social graces. But before Ragnelle transforms, she is unattractive, poorly dressed, and seemingly manner less, thus it is assumed and portrayed as being poor and uneducated. Because of her lower-class station she is considered a threat to the court, and thus looked down upon at least until she transforms and marries, and therefore no longer becomes a threat to Arthur's court and lands. No longer a threat to the hierarchy, she becomes portrayed as societies ideal woman.
2) Critics might believe that Chaucer was a feminist because he supported women in his tales. He gave them positive roles in his work and had no male heroes. In the wife of baths tale, critics believe that Chaucer might be voicing his opinion through the character, the wife of bath, who isn't the stereo typical woman of medieval England. Instead she ends up in control of the knight, who would usually hold authority. The tale shows many examples of power given to female characters (The king giving the decision on whether to spare the knights life to the Queen), while Chaucer describes men in negative roles or images: "There is noon oother incubus but he." (880) Women were seen as objects and Chaucer may have been a feminist for writing through their eyes by letting the women who feel like they have been used by men get payback.
ReplyDeleteHowever, just because Chaucer gave power to the women in his tales, it doesn't make him a feminist. He does let the rapist live and the rapist does get rewarded for giving power over to the loathly lady by having her transfer into a beautiful mistress.
References:
Chaucer, Geoffrey (c.1390). The Wife of Bath
No i don't think the act of giving the decision to the queen by the king is a good example. The reason is from line 895 that the queen and the ladies all pray for his mercy until he agreed so and of course the queen "thanks the king with all her might". However, the text implements that the king himself, though hold the utmost power that can deny the those request chose to let the queen decide instead. The knight, could have ran away (which is reasonable in our modern day), chose to follow the order. This can be depicted that his action is worthy to reward but only after he overcome the challenge and take the 'hag' as lover and wife. As a result, these events emphasised Chaucers had been a feminist even more.
DeleteGod knows what the knight had done with the ladies so that they saved his life, even the raped girl didn't react to their decision at all. Do you think it is meant for the naughty guy to be surrounded by ladies? lol
I have to say I disagree, the roles of King Arthur and Sir Gawain are undoubtedly prestigious roles within this context. A peasant farmer or indeed anyone in a lower class would never have been given such a chance for redemption. Couldn't it also be argued that because of how the hag manipulated Gawain, that it depicts women as deceitful?
DeleteResponding to question 3: Hahn's essay argues that aside from justifying the feminine, the poem "The wedding of Sir Gawain and Dame Ragnelle" also emphasise the brotherhood and the unity between knights in medieval English. With Ragnelle at the central, she mediate the situations between Sir Gromer and King Arthur while also create a chance for Sir Gawain to display his courage. Futhermore, Hahn (1995) says that the poem also used conventional romance setting, with forest as the platform for high class entertainment and mystical event, given King Arthur went hunting in the forest and met his life-saving answer from Dame Ragnelle in Inglewood. The same happened with King Henry extract and the wife of Bathe's tale.
ReplyDeleteAnother point is by using the setting of the loathly lady fabula, the poem display the stereotypes of Western women by old and true with beauty but unfaithful. This is, supprisingly, different with Eastern stereotypes where stories of poor beautiful benign ladies became recognised while another ugly but devious woman hinders it.
Reference:
Hahn, T. (Ed). (1995). The Wedding of Sir Gawain and Dame Ragnelle. In Sir Gawain: Eleven Romances and Tales. Kalamazoo, Michigan: Medieval Institute Publication.
Tam and Cam (n.d.). Retrieved on April 7th, 2012 from http://www.pitt.edu/~dash/tam2.html